Daily Quiz – 27th Jan 2024 By adminJanuary 29, 2024Quiz Daily Quiz - 27th Jan 2024 Daily Quiz - 27th Jan 2024 1 / 10 In the context of various political systems prevailing in the world, consider the following countries:ChinaVietnamCubaArgentinaHow many of the above countries are currently governed by One Party System? Only one Only two Only three All four Explanation:A one-party system is a type of political system in which a single political party holds all or a significant majority of the political power. In such a system, the ruling party monopolizes political control, and opposition parties either do not exist or have limited influence.Cuba is a one-party state, with the Communist Party of Cuba being described as the "superior driving force of the society and the state" in the Constitution of Cuba, and the communist party is the only official political party.China, formally the People's Republic of China, is a one-party state (Single party system) led by the Chinese Communist Party (CCP).Vietnam is a one-party state, dominated for decades by the ruling Communist Party of Vietnam (CPV).Argentina is not a one-party state and multiple parties have membership in the legislature.Some key characteristics and features of a one-party system:Opposition parties are either restricted or nonexistent in a one-party system.Power is centralized within the ruling party, with its leadership making key decisions.Ideological conformity is emphasized, and dissent within the party may be discouraged.Propaganda and mass mobilization techniques are often used to maintain support and suppress dissent.Political pluralism and diverse representation are limited in a one-party system.Stability and cohesion are often cited as advantages of one-party systems.One-party systems can vary in their degree of authoritarianism and methods of maintaining power.Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. Explanation:A one-party system is a type of political system in which a single political party holds all or a significant majority of the political power. In such a system, the ruling party monopolizes political control, and opposition parties either do not exist or have limited influence.Cuba is a one-party state, with the Communist Party of Cuba being described as the "superior driving force of the society and the state" in the Constitution of Cuba, and the communist party is the only official political party.China, formally the People's Republic of China, is a one-party state (Single party system) led by the Chinese Communist Party (CCP).Vietnam is a one-party state, dominated for decades by the ruling Communist Party of Vietnam (CPV).Argentina is not a one-party state and multiple parties have membership in the legislature.Some key characteristics and features of a one-party system:Opposition parties are either restricted or nonexistent in a one-party system.Power is centralized within the ruling party, with its leadership making key decisions.Ideological conformity is emphasized, and dissent within the party may be discouraged.Propaganda and mass mobilization techniques are often used to maintain support and suppress dissent.Political pluralism and diverse representation are limited in a one-party system.Stability and cohesion are often cited as advantages of one-party systems.One-party systems can vary in their degree of authoritarianism and methods of maintaining power.Hence, option (c) is the correct answer. 2 / 10 Consider the following statements about the Indian Judiciary:The strength of judges in the Supreme Court can be increased by Parliament.The strength of judges in the High Courts can be increased by the President.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation:Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court was fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other judges). The Parliament has increased this number of other judges progressively to ten in 1956, to thirteen in 1960, and seventeen in 1977, twenty-five in 1986, thirty in 2008, and thirty-three in 2019. Hence, statement 1 is correct.At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-four judges (one chief justice and thirty-three other judges). In 2019, the center notified an increase in the number of Supreme Court judges from thirty-one to thirty-four, including the Chief Justice of India. This followed the enactment of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019.Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice and such other judges as the president may, from time to time, deem necessary to appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending on its workload. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Explanation:Originally, the strength of the Supreme Court was fixed at eight (one chief justice and seven other judges). The Parliament has increased this number of other judges progressively to ten in 1956, to thirteen in 1960, and seventeen in 1977, twenty-five in 1986, thirty in 2008, and thirty-three in 2019. Hence, statement 1 is correct.At present, the Supreme Court consists of thirty-four judges (one chief justice and thirty-three other judges). In 2019, the center notified an increase in the number of Supreme Court judges from thirty-one to thirty-four, including the Chief Justice of India. This followed the enactment of the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Act, 2019.Every high court (whether exclusive or common) consists of a chief justice and such other judges as the president may, from time to time, deem necessary to appoint. Thus, the Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court and leaves it to the discretion of the president. Accordingly, the President determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending on its workload. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 3 / 10 Consider the following statements about the fundamental rights under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution:If it is violated by the State, there is an explicit provision in the Constitution for grant of compensation by the State.The protection under it can be available only against arbitrary executive action and not against arbitrary legislative action.In the Maneka case 1978, the Supreme Court of India recognized the expression ‘due process of law’ under Article 21.How many statements given above are correct? Only one Only two All three None Explanation:Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.In the famous Gopalan case (1950), the Supreme Court has taken a narrow interpretation of the Article 21. It held that the protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action. This means that the State can deprive the right to life and personal liberty of a person based on a law, it also held that the ‘personal liberty’ means only liberty relating to the person or body of the individual. This is because of the expression ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21.In Maneka case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of the Article 21. Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just. In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’. In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action. Hence statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.Award of compensation is an appropriate and effective remedy for redress of an established infringement of a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution. However, in Vibin P.V. v. State of Kerala, court clarified that there is no express provision in the Constitution of India for grant of compensation by the State for the infringement of right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is not correct. Explanation:Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.In the famous Gopalan case (1950), the Supreme Court has taken a narrow interpretation of the Article 21. It held that the protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action. This means that the State can deprive the right to life and personal liberty of a person based on a law, it also held that the ‘personal liberty’ means only liberty relating to the person or body of the individual. This is because of the expression ‘procedure established by law’ in Article 21.In Maneka case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of the Article 21. Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just. In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’. In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action. Hence statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.Award of compensation is an appropriate and effective remedy for redress of an established infringement of a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution. However, in Vibin P.V. v. State of Kerala, court clarified that there is no express provision in the Constitution of India for grant of compensation by the State for the infringement of right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 4 / 10 The ISA is guided by its ‘Towards 1000’ strategy, which aims: To mobilize USD 1000 billion of investments in solar energy solutions by 2030 To deliver energy access to 1000 million people using clean energy solutions To install 1000 GW of solar energy capacity. To mitigate global solar emissions to the tune of 1000 million tonnes of CO2 every year. Explanation:Vision: Let us together make the sun brighter.Mission: Every home, no matter how far away, will have a light at home.Headquarter: National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) in Gurugram, India. Explanation:Vision: Let us together make the sun brighter.Mission: Every home, no matter how far away, will have a light at home.Headquarter: National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE) in Gurugram, India. 5 / 10 Consider the following statements: The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation:The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an intergovernmental organization that was launched in 2015, by the Prime Minister of India and the President of France, at the United Nations Climate Change Conference held in Paris.ISA is an action-oriented, member-driven, collaborative platform for increased deployment of solar energy technologies. Explanation:The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an intergovernmental organization that was launched in 2015, by the Prime Minister of India and the President of France, at the United Nations Climate Change Conference held in Paris.ISA is an action-oriented, member-driven, collaborative platform for increased deployment of solar energy technologies. 6 / 10 Consider the following statements:Aadhaar can be used as proof of citizenship and domicile.Once issued, the Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the issuing authority.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 only 2 only Both 1 and 2 Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: Section 9 of Aadhar Act, 2016 states “The Aadhaar number or the authentication thereof shall not, by itself, confer any right of, or be proof of, citizenship or domicile in respect of an Aadhaar number holder.”Statement 2 is incorrect: The Aadhar Act regulations states that Aadhar number can be deactivated or omitted by the UIDAI, the issuing authority. Explanation:Statement 1 is incorrect: Section 9 of Aadhar Act, 2016 states “The Aadhaar number or the authentication thereof shall not, by itself, confer any right of, or be proof of, citizenship or domicile in respect of an Aadhaar number holder.”Statement 2 is incorrect: The Aadhar Act regulations states that Aadhar number can be deactivated or omitted by the UIDAI, the issuing authority. 7 / 10 National Tourism Day 2024: Theme In 2024 Sustainable Journeys, Timeless Memories,' promoting responsible and mindful travel. Sustainable Future Accelerate Change “Arise, Awake, and Realise the Power You Hold.” Explanation:'Sustainable Journeys, Timeless Memories,' promoting responsible and mindful travel.National Tourism Day highlights a specific theme to raise awareness about various aspects of tourism. In 2024, the designated theme is 'Sustainable Journeys, Timeless Memories,' promoting responsible and mindful travel Explanation:'Sustainable Journeys, Timeless Memories,' promoting responsible and mindful travel.National Tourism Day highlights a specific theme to raise awareness about various aspects of tourism. In 2024, the designated theme is 'Sustainable Journeys, Timeless Memories,' promoting responsible and mindful travel 8 / 10 Consider the following statements:Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1 and 4 only 2 and 4 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Explanation:Supreme Court had ruled that Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months. This nullified the provision in the Act, which allowed storage of such data for five years. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.The Supreme court in the Aadhaar verdict had defined the welfare schemes as those funded from the consolidated fund of India. And it upheld the validity of Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act which states that Central or State Governments can make possession of an Aadhaar number or Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receipt of subsidies, benefits or services funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, statement 4 is correct.The same 2018 judgement also held making that Aadhaar mandatory for other services apart from welfare schemes as unconstitutional. This includes availing financial services, including insurance or even to prevent money laundering in such services. Subsequently, IRDAI issued an advisory in January 2019 that clarified that aadhaar is not mandatory for obtaining insurance and withdrew its earlier policy of 2017 to make Aadhaar mandatory in insurance for preventing money laundering. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct.Further, many sections of the Aadhaar Act were struck down. This includes the part of section 57 which allowed providing private corporations to verify Aadhaar data which was held unconstitutional. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.Therefore, the correct answer is (b). Explanation:Supreme Court had ruled that Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than six months. This nullified the provision in the Act, which allowed storage of such data for five years. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.The Supreme court in the Aadhaar verdict had defined the welfare schemes as those funded from the consolidated fund of India. And it upheld the validity of Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act which states that Central or State Governments can make possession of an Aadhaar number or Aadhaar authentication mandatory for receipt of subsidies, benefits or services funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Therefore, statement 4 is correct.The same 2018 judgement also held making that Aadhaar mandatory for other services apart from welfare schemes as unconstitutional. This includes availing financial services, including insurance or even to prevent money laundering in such services. Subsequently, IRDAI issued an advisory in January 2019 that clarified that aadhaar is not mandatory for obtaining insurance and withdrew its earlier policy of 2017 to make Aadhaar mandatory in insurance for preventing money laundering. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct.Further, many sections of the Aadhaar Act were struck down. This includes the part of section 57 which allowed providing private corporations to verify Aadhaar data which was held unconstitutional. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.Therefore, the correct answer is (b). 9 / 10 The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja? (2022) The best means of salvation was devotion. Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative. Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss. Salvation was to be obtained through meditation. Explanation:Ramanuja, born in Tamil Nadu in the 11th century was deeply influenced by the Alvars (Vishnu worshippers). According to him the best means of attaining salvation was through intense devotion to Vishnu. Vishnu in His grace helps the devotee to attain the bliss of union with Him. He propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita or qualified oneness in that the soul even when united with the Supreme God remained distinct.Ramanuja’s doctrine greatly inspired the new strand of bhakti which developed in north India subsequently.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. Explanation:Ramanuja, born in Tamil Nadu in the 11th century was deeply influenced by the Alvars (Vishnu worshippers). According to him the best means of attaining salvation was through intense devotion to Vishnu. Vishnu in His grace helps the devotee to attain the bliss of union with Him. He propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita or qualified oneness in that the soul even when united with the Supreme God remained distinct.Ramanuja’s doctrine greatly inspired the new strand of bhakti which developed in north India subsequently.Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer. 10 / 10 Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil? Excretion of urea by animalsBurning of coal by manDeath of vegetationSelect the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 1, 2 and 3 Explanation:Mammals, including humans, are the primary producers of urea. Because they secrete urea as the primary nitrogenous waste product, they are called ureotelic animals. These wastes add nitrogen to the soil. Hence, 1 is correct.Coal combustion produces Oxides of Carbon (COx), Oxides of Sulphur (SOx), Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx) and a variety of byproducts, including fly-ash, flue gas and scrubber sludge. However, it does not directly add nitrogen to the soil. Hence, 2 is not correct.When plants and animals die, the Nitrogen compounds in the organic matter re-enter the soil where they are broken down by microorganisms, known as decomposers. This decomposition produces Ammonia, which goes through the nitrification process, i.e., nitrifying bacteria in the soil convert Ammonia into Nitrite (NO2 ) and then into Nitrate (NO3 ). Hence, 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Explanation:Mammals, including humans, are the primary producers of urea. Because they secrete urea as the primary nitrogenous waste product, they are called ureotelic animals. These wastes add nitrogen to the soil. Hence, 1 is correct.Coal combustion produces Oxides of Carbon (COx), Oxides of Sulphur (SOx), Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx) and a variety of byproducts, including fly-ash, flue gas and scrubber sludge. However, it does not directly add nitrogen to the soil. Hence, 2 is not correct.When plants and animals die, the Nitrogen compounds in the organic matter re-enter the soil where they are broken down by microorganisms, known as decomposers. This decomposition produces Ammonia, which goes through the nitrification process, i.e., nitrifying bacteria in the soil convert Ammonia into Nitrite (NO2 ) and then into Nitrate (NO3 ). Hence, 3 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. Your score isThe average score is 50% 0% Restart quiz